I'm not anti-Catholic. I'm as anti-Catholic as I am anti-Islam. I just don't believe in the same beliefs as that organization.
It cites Jesus' command to make disciples of all nations and to teach what he has commanded, then cites John 20:30 and 21:25. However, both of the John quotes say that he performed many miracles and did many things (respectively) not found in the Bible - but not that he commanded many things not found in the Bible.
Mark 16:15 simply enforces that the word of God and His commandments need to be spread, not dictating from which source the truth needs to come from (Bible or church).
Luke 1:1-4 simply introduces Luke as a written account of what he has seen, so that things won't get mixed up by word of mouth. Again, this does not do away with Sola Scriptura - if anything, it strengthens such a belief, because it is necessary to put such things into writing to solidify their integrity.
Acts 8:30-31 and Hebrews 5:12 does not negate a stance of Sola Scriptura. It simply says that one should be able to seek assistance in understanding the Bible from their church leaders. This doesn't conflict with Sola Scriptura - it's only when an organization makes rules and dogma that can not be found cited within the Bible that Sola Scriptura has been done away with.
Acts 15:1-14 is used to demonstrate that scripture was not referenced in the decision. That would be because the Scripture was not yet compiled, nor fully written - at that time, it was
being written. That passage simply demonstrates that it was no longer by following Jewish law that one was saved, but by faith in God.
In Acts 17:28, he simply uses other writings to help convey the message of the Bible, not as a source of church doctrine.
1 Corinthians 5:9-11 restates what was said in another letter. Thus, what material was needed to be discussed was re-stated in the Bible. This does not disprove Sola Scriptura.
As I said above, 1 Corinthians 11:2 simply states to "follow the traditions" - traditions
set by the Bible.
Philippians 4:9 doesn't disprove Sola Scriptura. Whatever Paul's actions were, they were based on the teachings of the Bible. He was simply saying that he was a living example of the Bible's teachings.
Colossians 4:16 says to "read the letter from Laodicea." Simply referencing to a writing that is not in the Bible does not disprove Sola Scriptura, especially when the contents of that letter may be no more than "Hi, how are you, Jane's fine. How are the kids".
The citation of 1 Thessalonians 2:13 again makes the mistake that Sola Scriptura somehow reaches back before the Bible was written and compiled. Of course you can't say, "Follow this book that hasn't been written yet but I'm going to eventually."
1 Thessalonians 3:10 simply states that he wishes to supply what is lacking
in their faith. How does that disprove Sola Scriptura?
The citation of 2 Thessalonians 2:14-15 again erroneously assumes that Sola Scriptura somehow extends back before the writing and compilation of the Bible.
2 Thessalonians 3:6 again refers to traditions or teachings found within the Bible itself. And, of course the word "Bible" isn't in the Bible. What kind of claim against Sola Scriptura is that?
The citation of 1 Timothy 3:14-15 again makes the same mistake of assuming that Sola Scriptura extends back before the writing, completion, and compilation of the Bible.
In 2 Timothy 2:2, Paul doesn't mention committing the words he spoke to writing because he's not psychic or, more likely, oral tradition was more common of the day, and not every man could read or write. Eventually, however, his words
were committed to writing.
2 Timothy 3:14 refers to teachings of the Bibles. How does this disprove Sola Scriptura?
James 4:5, to quote
this page, "probably is the view that James was not citing a particular passage but summarizing the truth expressed in several Old Testament passages."
2 Peter 1:20, and the additional scripture they reference, means that, yes, interpretation should be a public action - one not made by priests, bishops, archbishops, or popes. What if these individuals are wrong? How can your faith be placed in an organization that is imperfect? It's easier for a single person to change their beliefs in the light of new evidence than it is for an entire religion.
2 Peter 3:16 doesn't disprove Sola Scriptura. If a person has difficulty understanding Scripture, there's nothing wrong with getting a point of view from one's church leader(s). But that doesn't mean that the church can make doctrine without Biblical support.
1 John 4:1 says "test to see if the person is a false prophet, by asking them if Jesus has come back in the flesh." What does that have to do with Sola Scriptura?
1 Samuel 3:1-9 doesn't have anything to do with Sola Scriptura. Samuel simply mistakes God's voice for Eli's.
1 Kings 13:1-32 again, has nothing to do with Sola Scriptura.
And this was just the first part of the page.
Well, yes, but the Jews wrote the Torah, and these books would be OT (as they pre-date Jesus' coming), so it would make sense that, if the Jews didn't use them, why should we?
The Trinity has
some Biblical support.